The case x=0 is trivial, so assume 0<∣x∣<1. Put r=1/∣x∣; then r>1, so r=1+h with h>0.
Bernoulli's inequality (1+h)n≥1+nh (for h>−1): equality at n=1, and if (1+h)n≥1+nh then (1+h)n+1=(1+h)n(1+h)≥(1+nh)(1+h)=1+(n+1)h+nh2≥1+(n+1)h, so induction gives it. Hence ∣x∣n=1/rn=1/(1+h)n≤1/(1+nh).
Given ε>0, the Archimedean property gives a natural N>(1/ε−1)/h. For n>N, nh>1/ε−1, so 1+nh>1/ε, i.e. 1/(1+nh)<ε. Hence ∣xn−0∣=∣x∣n≤1/(1+nh)<ε — xn→0.
Prove completely that x1/n→1 when x>1. Hint: put tn=x1/n−1≥0 and apply Bernoulli's inequality to x=(1+tn)n.
tn=x1/n−1≥0,x=(1+tn)n≥1+ntn,0≤tn≤nx−1→0
x=2, n=20: 21/n descends to 1 from above — 21/20≈1.0353, 21/60≈1.0116.Show proof
Put tn=x1/n−1. Since x>1, x1/n>1 and tn≥0. By definition x=(1+tn)n.
By Bernoulli's inequality (problem 1), (1+tn)n≥1+ntn, so x≥1+ntn, i.e. 0≤tn≤(x−1)/n.
Since (x−1)/n→0, the squeeze theorem gives tn→0, i.e. x1/n=1+tn→1. (In ε-N form: for N>(x−1)/ε, n>N⇒∣x1/n−1∣=tn≤(x−1)/n<ε.)
Prove completely that n1/n→1. Hint: put tn=n1/n−1 and keep only the (2n)tn2 term of the binomial expansion.
tn=n1/n−1,n=(1+tn)n≥(2n)tn2,0≤tn≤n−12→0
x=2, n=60: shows 21/k→1. The proof below applies the same binomial trick with x=n to get tn≤2/(n−1) (at n=60 the bound is 0.1841, the actual t60≈0.0706).Show proof
Put tn=n1/n−1. Since n≥1, tn≥0, and by definition n=(1+tn)n.
For n≥2, the binomial theorem gives (1+tn)n=∑k=0n(kn)tnk≥(2n)tn2 (the dropped terms are all nonnegative). So n≥2n(n−1)tn2.
Dividing by n>0 gives 1≥2n−1tn2, i.e. 0≤tn≤2/(n−1). Since 2/(n−1)→0, the squeeze theorem gives tn→0, i.e. n1/n=1+tn→1. Numerical check: at n=60 the bound is 2/59≈0.1841 and the actual 601/60−1≈0.0706 sits inside it.