The Lp triangle inequality — ∥f+g∥p≤∥f∥p+∥g∥p on [0,1]. With f(t)=ta, g(t)=(1−t)b, sliding p opens and closes the gap between the two bars. At p=1 linearity of the integral closes the gap to 0.
∥f+g∥p≤∥f∥p+∥g∥p(1≤p<∞)
∥f∥p=(∫01∣f∣p)1/p
Examples & Exercises
Apply the standard proof deriving Minkowski's inequality from Hölder's inequality to this scene's concrete functions f(t)=t, g(t)=1−t (a=b=1) with p=2, proving it completely. Verify each step of the proof (the Hölder application, (p−1)q=p, the division) numerically as well.
p=2, a=b=1: ∥f∥2=∥g∥2=31≈0.577350, and f+g≡1 gives ∥f+g∥2=1. The Hölder step: ∫01f(f+g)=21≤31≈0.577350.Show proof
With p=2 the conjugate exponent is q=p−1p=2, and (p−1)q=1⋅2=2=p. First split ∥f+g∥22=∫01(f+g)2 into two terms: ∫01(f+g)2=∫01f(f+g)+∫01g(f+g).
Apply Hölder's inequality ∫∣uv∣≤∥u∥p∥v∥q to each term with u=f, v=f+g: ∫01f(f+g)≤∥f∥2∥f+g∥2. Numerically, ∫01f(f+g)=∫01t⋅1dt=21=0.5 while ∥f∥2∥f+g∥2=31⋅1≈0.5773502692, so 0.5≤0.5773502692. The g term is identical by symmetry (∫01g(f+g)=∫01(1−t)dt=21).
Adding the two terms gives ∥f+g∥22≤(∥f∥2+∥g∥2)∥f+g∥22−1. Since ∥f+g∥2=1=0, dividing by ∥f+g∥2 yields ∥f+g∥2≤∥f∥2+∥g∥2 — i.e. 1≤32≈1.1547005384. The gap is 32−1≈0.1547005384, matching the scene's number. (For general p the same argument uses (p−1)q=p to get ∥f+g∥pp≤(∥f∥p+∥g∥p)∥f+g∥pp−1, then divides by ∥f+g∥pp−1 for Minkowski's inequality.)
Prove completely, starting from homogeneity ∥cf∥p=c∥f∥p, that Minkowski's inequality is an equality when g=cf for a constant c≥0. In this scene that is the case a=b=0 (f=g≡1, i.e. c=1); confirm numerically that the gap is 0.
g=cf(c≥0)⇒∥f+g∥p=(1+c)∥f∥p=∥f∥p+∥g∥p
a=b=0:∥f∥p=∥g∥p=1,∥f+g∥p=2
p=2, a=b=0: f=g≡1, so g=1⋅f — proportional. ∥f∥2=∥g∥2=1, ∥f+g∥2=2, gap =0.Show proof
First prove homogeneity. For c≥0, ∥cf∥pp=∫01∣cf∣p=∫01cp∣f∣p=cp∥f∥pp, so taking p-th roots gives ∥cf∥p=c∥f∥p.
If g=cf with c≥0, then f+g=(1+c)f, so by homogeneity ∥f+g∥p=∥(1+c)f∥p=(1+c)∥f∥p=∥f∥p+c∥f∥p=∥f∥p+∥cf∥p=∥f∥p+∥g∥p — equality holds.
For the scene: a=b=0 gives f(t)=t0≡1 and g(t)=(1−t)0≡1, so g=1⋅f. Hence ∥f∥2=(∫011dt)1/2=1, ∥g∥2=1, ∥f+g∥2=∥2∥2=2, matching the right side ∥f∥2+∥g∥2=2 — the gap is exactly 0. (Note: at p=1 equality always holds by linearity ∫(f+g)=∫f+∫g. The deeper equality condition — that the Hölder steps need ∣f∣p proportional to ∣g∣q — includes this proportional case.)
Show that Minkowski's inequality fails for 0<p<1. First prove that for f,g≥0 the inequality reverses to ∥f+g∥p≥∥f∥p+∥g∥p, then compute the concrete counterexample p=21, f(t)=t, g(t)=1−t directly and verify numerically that ∥f+g∥1/2=1>98=∥f∥1/2+∥g∥1/2.
0<p<1:(f+g)p≥fp+gp⇒∥f+g∥p≥∥f∥p+∥g∥p
p=21:∥f∥1/2=∥g∥1/2=94,∥f+g∥1/2=1>98
This problem is about a separate computation at p=21, outside the scene's slider range (1≤p≤4) — the preset is the scene default p=2, a=b=1.Show proof
Let 0<p<1 and f,g≥0. Pointwise (f+g)p≥fp+gp (the base f+g≥max(f,g) with positive exponent), so integrating gives ∥f+g∥pp≥∥f∥pp+∥g∥pp. With r=p1>1 we have (A+B)r≥Ar+Br for A,B≥0 (e.g. (1+t)r≥1+tr for t≥0), hence ∥f+g∥p≥(∥f∥pp+∥g∥pp)1/p≥∥f∥p+∥g∥p — the inequality reverses.
Concretely, take p=21, f(t)=t, g(t)=1−t. Since ∫01tdt=32, we get ∥f∥1/2=(32)2=94≈0.444444, and by symmetry ∥g∥1/2=94. So the right side is 94+94=98≈0.888889. But f+g≡1, so ∥f+g∥1/2=(∫011dt)2=1. Hence 1>98 — Minkowski's inequality breaks, and the gap is −91≈−0.111111, negative (also confirmed by numerical integration).
The exact failure point of the standard proof is also clear: Hölder's inequality needs the conjugate exponent q=p−1p>1, but for p<1 we get q<0, so the Hölder step itself is unavailable. That is why Minkowski's inequality essentially requires p≥1.