Fourier coefficients die out — ∫f(x)sin(nx)dx→0. Rapid oscillation averages away every bump of f.
an=π1∫−ππf(x)cos(nx)dx→0
bn=π1∫−ππf(x)sin(nx)dx→0
Examples & Exercises
Compute directly the Fourier coefficients bn=π1∫02πf(x)sin(nx)dx of f=1[0,π] (on [0,2π]), find an as well, and prove completely that an,bn→0.
bn=nπ1−(−1)nn→∞0,an=0
Step mode, n=12, ∣b∣ stems: odd terms sink as ∣bn∣=nπ2 and even terms are exactly 0 — ∣b11∣=11π2≈0.0579.Show proof
Since f is 1 on [0,π] and 0 on (π,2π], bn=π1∫0πsin(nx)dx. With ∫sin(nx)dx=−cos(nx)/n, we get bn=π1[−ncos(nx)]0π=nπ1−cos(nπ), and cos(nπ)=(−1)n gives bn=nπ1−(−1)n.
Since ∣1−(−1)n∣≤2, ∣bn∣≤nπ2→0 as n→∞. Meanwhile an=π1∫0πcos(nx)dx=nπsin(nπ)=0 — exactly 0 for every n≥1. Hence an→0 and bn→0 are both proved.
The scene's step mode reproduces this formula by numerical quadrature: the odd stems ride the 2/(nπ) curve downward while the even stems sit at 0 up to quadrature error. A discontinuous function's coefficients go at rate 1/n — slower than for smooth functions (compare the tent mode).
Prove the Riemann–Lebesgue lemma for a step function s=∑k=1mck1[xk−1,xk) (on a partition of [0,2π]): an(s),bn(s)→0.
π1∫xk−1xksin(nx)dx≤nπ2n→∞0
Step mode, n=24: each of the finitely many intervals contributes at most 2/(nπ), so the total ∣bn∣ goes to 0 — the numerical version of the general step-function proof.Show proof
By linearity of the integral, bn(s)=∑k=1mckbn(1[xk−1,xk)). Each interval indicator contributes bn(1[xk−1,xk))=π1∫xk−1xksin(nx)dx=nπcos(nxk−1)−cos(nxk).
Since ∣cos(nxk−1)−cos(nxk)∣≤2, bn(1[xk−1,xk))≤nπ2 — a uniform bound independent of the interval's position. Hence ∣bn(s)∣≤∑k=1m∣ck∣nπ2=nC (with C=π2∑∣ck∣ independent of n), which goes to 0 as n→∞. The same computation with cos in place of sin sends an(s)→0.
The point is finiteness: with only finitely many intervals, adding up the O(1/n) contributions still gives O(1/n). This is the platform the density argument to continuous functions (problem 3 below) stands on.
First prove that a continuous f on [0,2π] can be uniformly approximated by step functions (via uniform continuity), then use it to prove bn(f)→0 (and an(f)→0) completely by an ε/3 argument.
∣bn(f)∣≤∣bn(f−s)∣+∣bn(s)∣≤2ε+∣bn(s)∣n→∞2ε
Tent mode, n=24: continuous functions are uniformly approximable by step functions, so ∣an∣→0 too — here sinking even faster as ∣an∣=4/(π2n2) (odd n).Show proof
Lemma (uniform approximation by step functions): if f is continuous on [0,2π] it is uniformly continuous, so for every ε>0 there is δ>0 with ∣x−y∣<δ⇒∣f(x)−f(y)∣<ε. Split [0,2π] into intervals I1,…,Im of width <δ and define the step function s taking the constant value f(xk−1) (left endpoint) on each Ik. For x∈Ik, ∣x−xk−1∣<δ, so ∣f(x)−s(x)∣<ε — i.e. ∥f−s∥∞<ε. Lemma proved.
Fix ε>0 and pick a step function s with ∥f−s∥∞<ε by the lemma. By the triangle inequality ∣bn(f)∣≤∣bn(f−s)∣+∣bn(s)∣. The first term satisfies ∣bn(f−s)∣≤π1∫02π∣f−s∣∣sin(nx)∣dx≤π1ε⋅2π=2ε — independent of n.
The second term ∣bn(s)∣→0 as n→∞ by problem 2. So choose N large enough that ∣bn(s)∣<ε for n≥N; for those n, ∣bn(f)∣<2ε+ε=3ε. Since ε is arbitrary, bn(f)→0. The same argument with ∣cos(nx)∣≤1 gives an(f)→0. Every step is complete — nothing is left at idea level.