Problems to check your understanding of this chapter. The solutions are folded away — try them yourself first.
Easy
1Easy
Let f be continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b), with ∣f′(x)∣≤M for all x∈(a,b) and some constant M≥0. Prove that ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤M∣x−y∣ for all x,y∈[a,b]. (Hence f is uniformly continuous on [a,b].)
The case x=y is trivial, so let x<y. Since f is continuous on [x,y]⊂[a,b] and differentiable on (x,y)⊂(a,b), the Mean Value Theorem applies on [x,y]: for some c∈(x,y), f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x).
Taking absolute values, ∣f(y)−f(x)∣=∣f′(c)∣⋅∣y−x∣≤M∣y−x∣. The case x>y is the same with the roles swapped, so the inequality holds for all x,y∈[a,b]. This is the Lipschitz condition, and uniform continuity follows with δ=ε/M (any δ>0 if M=0).
2Easy
Start Newton's iteration for x2−2=0, xn+1=xn−2xnxn2−2=2xn+2/xn, at x0=1. (a) Show xn>0 for all n. (b) Use AM-GM to show xn+1≥2 for all n. (c) Show x1>2 and that (xn)n≥1 is decreasing. (d) Conclude xn→2.
Starting at x0=1: the first tangent overshoots 2 to x1=3/2, then the iterates descend monotonically to the root.Show solution
(a) x0=1>0, and if xn>0 then xn+1 is the average of two positive numbers, hence positive — by induction xn>0 for all n. (b) By AM-GM, xn+1=2xn+2/xn≥xn⋅xn2=2.
(c) x1=21+2=23, and (23)2=49>2, so x1>2 — the first step overshoots the root. For n≥1, xn+1−xn=22/xn−xn=2xn2−xn2; by (b), xn≥2, so the numerator is ≤0. Hence (xn)n≥1 is decreasing.
(d) (xn)n≥1 is decreasing and bounded below by 2, so it converges to some L≥2. Passing to the limit in the recurrence gives L=2L+2/L, i.e. 2L=L+2/L, so L=2/L. Since L>0, L2=2, i.e. L=2.
3Easy
Prove via the triangle inequality that f(x)=∣x∣ is convex on R, and cite the continuity theorem for convex functions to conclude f is continuous. Show f is not differentiable at 0, confirming that convexity does not imply differentiability.
For 0≤t≤1 and x,y∈R, the triangle inequality and homogeneity of the absolute value give ∣tx+(1−t)y∣≤∣tx∣+∣(1−t)y∣=t∣x∣+(1−t)∣y∣. This is exactly the definition of convexity, so f is convex on R. A convex function is continuous on every open interval (the theorem of the convex scene), so f is continuous everywhere.
But the difference quotient at 0 is hf(h)−f(0)=h∣h∣={1−1h>0h<0, which has no limit. Hence f is not differentiable at 0 — the simplest example of a function that is convex and continuous but not differentiable.
Medium
4Medium
Let f be differentiable on [a,b] with f′(x)=0 for every x∈[a,b]. Combining Darboux's theorem with the Mean Value Theorem, prove that f is strictly monotone on [a,b].
By Darboux's theorem, f′ has the intermediate value property. Suppose f′ changed sign: there exist u,v∈[a,b] with f′(u)>0>f′(v). Applying Darboux's theorem on the interval between u and v would produce a point c with f′(c)=0, contradicting the hypothesis. Hence f′ cannot change sign, and since it never vanishes, it is either everywhere positive or everywhere negative on [a,b].
Consider the case f′>0 (the negative case differs only in sign). For x<y, the Mean Value Theorem gives c∈(x,y) with f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x); since f′(c)>0, we get f(y)>f(x). So f is strictly increasing. Likewise f′<0 makes f strictly decreasing.
5Medium
Let f be n+1 times continuously differentiable on [a,b] (n≥0). For a≤x≤b, prove Taylor's formula with integral remainder
\[f(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k + R_n(x), \qquad R_n(x) = \frac{1}{n!}\int_a^x (x-t)^n f^{(n+1)}(t)\,dt.\]
The case n=0 is the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus; for the induction step apply integration by parts once.
Degree n=5: the band trapping the remainder R5(x) — the integral remainder is the exact formula measuring this error.Show solution
For n=0 the formula is f(x)=f(a)+∫axf′(t)dt, the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. As the induction hypothesis, assume the formula for n holds for Cn+1 functions. For g∈Cn+2, applying it to g gives g(x)=Tn(x)+n!1∫ax(x−t)ng(n+1)(t)dt, where Tn is the degree-n Taylor polynomial.
Apply integration by parts to the remainder integral: with u=g(n+1)(t) and dv=(x−t)ndt, we have du=g(n+2)(t)dt and v=−n+1(x−t)n+1. Since g(n+1) and (x−t)n+1 are continuous, parts is legitimate and
\[\int_a^x (x-t)^n g^{(n+1)}(t)\,dt = \left[-\frac{(x-t)^{n+1}}{n+1}\,g^{(n+1)}(t)\right]_a^x + \frac{1}{n+1}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n+1} g^{(n+2)}(t)\,dt.\]
The boundary term is 0 at t=x and gives n+1(x−a)n+1g(n+1)(a) at t=a (the minus sign flips).
Multiplying by n!1, the remainder integral becomes (n+1)!g(n+1)(a)(x−a)n+1+(n+1)!1∫ax(x−t)n+1g(n+2)(t)dt. The first term is exactly the degree-(n+1) Taylor term, and the second is Rn+1(x). Hence g(x)=Tn+1(x)+Rn+1(x), which is the formula for n+1. By induction the proof is complete for all n≥0.
6Medium
Consider the map T(x)=2+x1 on [0,1]. (a) Show T maps [0,1] into itself and is a contraction with constant c=1/4. (b) Cite the Banach fixed point theorem to find the unique fixed point of T (solve the quadratic), and explain why iteration from any starting point converges to it.
(a) T is decreasing on [0,1] with T(0)=1/2 and T(1)=1/3, so T([0,1])=[1/3,1/2]⊂[0,1]. For x,y∈[0,1], ∣T(x)−T(y)∣=(2+x)(2+y)2+y−(2+x)=(2+x)(2+y)∣x−y∣. Since (2+x)(2+y)≥2⋅2=4, we get ∣T(x)−T(y)∣≤41∣x−y∣ — a contraction with constant 1/4.
(b) [0,1] is complete, so the Banach fixed point theorem (the Banach scene) gives T a unique fixed point x∗∈[0,1]. The equation x=2+x1 is equivalent to x2+2x−1=0, with roots x=−1±2. The only one in [0,1] is x∗=2−1≈0.4142. By the same theorem, the iteration xn+1=T(xn) from any x0∈[0,1] converges to x∗ — the error shrinks by at least a factor of 1/4 each step.
Hard
7Hard
Let f(x)=e−1/x2 for x=0 and f(0)=0. Prove f is infinitely differentiable on R with f(n)(0)=0 for every n≥0. Deduce that the Maclaurin series of f converges for every x but equals f(x) only at x=0 — a Taylor series need not recover the function.
Lemma: for any polynomial P, lim∣u∣→∞P(u)e−u2=0. Indeed, for v=u2≥0, ev≥m!vm (one term of the exponential's Taylor expansion), so with 2m>degP we get ∣P(u)∣e−u2≤m!u2m∣P(u)∣→0.
We claim f(n)(x)=Pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x=0, for some polynomial Pn, by induction. For n=0, P0≡1. With u=1/x,
\[\frac{d}{dx}\Bigl[P(u)e^{-1/x^2}\Bigr] = P'(u)\!\left(-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)e^{-1/x^2} + P(u)e^{-1/x^2}\!\left(\frac{2}{x^3}\right) = \bigl[-u^2P'(u) + 2u^3P(u)\bigr]e^{-u^2},\]
and the bracket is a polynomial in u, completing the induction step. Hence f is infinitely differentiable at x=0.
Now f(n)(0)=0 by induction. The case n=0 is the definition. f′(0)=limh→0he−1/h2=lim∣u∣→∞ue−u2=0 (lemma, with u=1/h). Assuming f(n)(0)=0,
\[f^{(n+1)}(0) = \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f^{(n)}(h) - f^{(n)}(0)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{P_n(1/h)e^{-1/h^2}}{h} = \lim_{\lvert u \rvert \to \infty} uP_n(u)e^{-u^2} = 0\]
(lemma applied to uPn(u)). Thus f(n)(0)=0 for all n, and f is infinitely differentiable at 0 too.
The Maclaurin series is T(x)=∑n=0∞n!f(n)(0)xn≡0 — it converges (to 0) at every x. But for x=0, f(x)=e−1/x2>0. So the Taylor series converges everywhere yet matches f only at x=0: even a smooth function need not be recovered by its Taylor series.