← 9. Differentiation

Exercises

Problems to check your understanding of this chapter. The solutions are folded away — try them yourself first.

Easy

1Easy

Let ff be continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), with ∣f′(x)∣≤M\lvert f'(x) \rvert \le M for all x∈(a,b)x \in (a,b) and some constant M≥0M \ge 0. Prove that ∣f(x)−f(y)∣≤M∣x−y∣\lvert f(x) - f(y) \rvert \le M\lvert x - y \rvert for all x,y∈[a,b]x, y \in [a,b]. (Hence ff is uniformly continuous on [a,b][a,b].)

Show solution
  1. The case x=yx = y is trivial, so let x<yx < y. Since ff is continuous on [x,y]⊂[a,b][x,y] \subset [a,b] and differentiable on (x,y)⊂(a,b)(x,y) \subset (a,b), the Mean Value Theorem applies on [x,y][x,y]: for some c∈(x,y)c \in (x,y), f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x)f(y) - f(x) = f'(c)(y - x).
  2. Taking absolute values, ∣f(y)−f(x)∣=∣f′(c)∣⋅∣y−x∣≤M∣y−x∣\lvert f(y) - f(x) \rvert = \lvert f'(c) \rvert \cdot \lvert y - x \rvert \le M\lvert y - x \rvert. The case x>yx > y is the same with the roles swapped, so the inequality holds for all x,y∈[a,b]x, y \in [a,b]. This is the Lipschitz condition, and uniform continuity follows with δ=ε/M\delta = \varepsilon / M (any δ>0\delta > 0 if M=0M = 0).
2Easy

Start Newton's iteration for x2−2=0x^2 - 2 = 0, xn+1=xn−xn2−22xn=xn+2/xn2x_{n+1} = x_n - \dfrac{x_n^2 - 2}{2x_n} = \dfrac{x_n + 2/x_n}{2}, at x0=1x_0 = 1. (a) Show xn>0x_n > 0 for all nn. (b) Use AM-GM to show xn+1≥2x_{n+1} \ge \sqrt{2} for all nn. (c) Show x1>2x_1 > \sqrt{2} and that (xn)n≥1(x_n)_{n \ge 1} is decreasing. (d) Conclude xn→2x_n \to \sqrt{2}.

xn+1=xn+2/xn2,x0=1,x1=32x_{n+1} = \frac{x_n + 2/x_n}{2}, \qquad x_0 = 1, \quad x_1 = \frac32
Starting at x0=1x_0 = 1: the first tangent overshoots 2\sqrt{2} to x1=3/2x_1 = 3/2, then the iterates descend monotonically to the root.
Show solution
  1. (a) x0=1>0x_0 = 1 > 0, and if xn>0x_n > 0 then xn+1x_{n+1} is the average of two positive numbers, hence positive — by induction xn>0x_n > 0 for all nn. (b) By AM-GM, xn+1=xn+2/xn2≥xn⋅2xn=2x_{n+1} = \dfrac{x_n + 2/x_n}{2} \ge \sqrt{x_n \cdot \dfrac{2}{x_n}} = \sqrt{2}.
  2. (c) x1=1+22=32x_1 = \dfrac{1 + 2}{2} = \dfrac32, and (32)2=94>2\left(\dfrac32\right)^2 = \dfrac94 > 2, so x1>2x_1 > \sqrt{2} — the first step overshoots the root. For n≥1n \ge 1, xn+1−xn=2/xn−xn2=2−xn22xnx_{n+1} - x_n = \dfrac{2/x_n - x_n}{2} = \dfrac{2 - x_n^2}{2x_n}; by (b), xn≥2x_n \ge \sqrt{2}, so the numerator is ≤0\le 0. Hence (xn)n≥1(x_n)_{n \ge 1} is decreasing.
  3. (d) (xn)n≥1(x_n)_{n \ge 1} is decreasing and bounded below by 2\sqrt{2}, so it converges to some L≥2L \ge \sqrt{2}. Passing to the limit in the recurrence gives L=L+2/L2L = \dfrac{L + 2/L}{2}, i.e. 2L=L+2/L2L = L + 2/L, so L=2/LL = 2/L. Since L>0L > 0, L2=2L^2 = 2, i.e. L=2L = \sqrt{2}.
3Easy

Prove via the triangle inequality that f(x)=∣x∣f(x) = \lvert x \rvert is convex on R\mathbb{R}, and cite the continuity theorem for convex functions to conclude ff is continuous. Show ff is not differentiable at 00, confirming that convexity does not imply differentiability.

∣tx+(1−t)y∣≤t∣x∣+(1−t)∣y∣(0≤t≤1)\lvert tx + (1-t)y \rvert \le t\lvert x \rvert + (1-t)\lvert y \rvert \qquad (0 \le t \le 1)
Show solution
  1. For 0≤t≤10 \le t \le 1 and x,y∈Rx, y \in \mathbb{R}, the triangle inequality and homogeneity of the absolute value give ∣tx+(1−t)y∣≤∣tx∣+∣(1−t)y∣=t∣x∣+(1−t)∣y∣\lvert tx + (1-t)y \rvert \le \lvert tx \rvert + \lvert (1-t)y \rvert = t\lvert x \rvert + (1-t)\lvert y \rvert. This is exactly the definition of convexity, so ff is convex on R\mathbb{R}. A convex function is continuous on every open interval (the theorem of the convex scene), so ff is continuous everywhere.
  2. But the difference quotient at 00 is f(h)−f(0)h=∣h∣h={1h>0−1h<0\dfrac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \dfrac{\lvert h \rvert}{h} = \begin{cases} 1 & h > 0 \\ -1 & h < 0 \end{cases}, which has no limit. Hence ff is not differentiable at 00 — the simplest example of a function that is convex and continuous but not differentiable.

Medium

4Medium

Let ff be differentiable on [a,b][a,b] with f′(x)≠0f'(x) \ne 0 for every x∈[a,b]x \in [a,b]. Combining Darboux's theorem with the Mean Value Theorem, prove that ff is strictly monotone on [a,b][a,b].

Show solution
  1. By Darboux's theorem, f′f' has the intermediate value property. Suppose f′f' changed sign: there exist u,v∈[a,b]u, v \in [a,b] with f′(u)>0>f′(v)f'(u) > 0 > f'(v). Applying Darboux's theorem on the interval between uu and vv would produce a point cc with f′(c)=0f'(c) = 0, contradicting the hypothesis. Hence f′f' cannot change sign, and since it never vanishes, it is either everywhere positive or everywhere negative on [a,b][a,b].
  2. Consider the case f′>0f' > 0 (the negative case differs only in sign). For x<yx < y, the Mean Value Theorem gives c∈(x,y)c \in (x,y) with f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x)f(y) - f(x) = f'(c)(y - x); since f′(c)>0f'(c) > 0, we get f(y)>f(x)f(y) > f(x). So ff is strictly increasing. Likewise f′<0f' < 0 makes ff strictly decreasing.
5Medium

Let ff be n+1n+1 times continuously differentiable on [a,b][a,b] (n≥0n \ge 0). For a≤x≤ba \le x \le b, prove Taylor's formula with integral remainder \[f(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k + R_n(x), \qquad R_n(x) = \frac{1}{n!}\int_a^x (x-t)^n f^{(n+1)}(t)\,dt.\] The case n=0n = 0 is the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus; for the induction step apply integration by parts once.

Degree n=5n = 5: the band trapping the remainder R5(x)R_5(x) — the integral remainder is the exact formula measuring this error.
Show solution
  1. For n=0n = 0 the formula is f(x)=f(a)+∫axf′(t) dtf(x) = f(a) + \int_a^x f'(t)\,dt, the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. As the induction hypothesis, assume the formula for nn holds for Cn+1C^{n+1} functions. For g∈Cn+2g \in C^{n+2}, applying it to gg gives g(x)=Tn(x)+1n!∫ax(x−t)ng(n+1)(t) dtg(x) = T_n(x) + \frac{1}{n!}\int_a^x (x-t)^n g^{(n+1)}(t)\,dt, where TnT_n is the degree-nn Taylor polynomial.
  2. Apply integration by parts to the remainder integral: with u=g(n+1)(t)u = g^{(n+1)}(t) and dv=(x−t)n dtdv = (x-t)^n\,dt, we have du=g(n+2)(t) dtdu = g^{(n+2)}(t)\,dt and v=−(x−t)n+1n+1v = -\dfrac{(x-t)^{n+1}}{n+1}. Since g(n+1)g^{(n+1)} and (x−t)n+1(x-t)^{n+1} are continuous, parts is legitimate and \[\int_a^x (x-t)^n g^{(n+1)}(t)\,dt = \left[-\frac{(x-t)^{n+1}}{n+1}\,g^{(n+1)}(t)\right]_a^x + \frac{1}{n+1}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n+1} g^{(n+2)}(t)\,dt.\] The boundary term is 00 at t=xt = x and gives (x−a)n+1n+1 g(n+1)(a)\dfrac{(x-a)^{n+1}}{n+1}\,g^{(n+1)}(a) at t=at = a (the minus sign flips).
  3. Multiplying by 1n!\frac{1}{n!}, the remainder integral becomes g(n+1)(a)(n+1)!(x−a)n+1+1(n+1)!∫ax(x−t)n+1g(n+2)(t) dt\dfrac{g^{(n+1)}(a)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1} + \dfrac{1}{(n+1)!}\int_a^x (x-t)^{n+1} g^{(n+2)}(t)\,dt. The first term is exactly the degree-(n+1)(n+1) Taylor term, and the second is Rn+1(x)R_{n+1}(x). Hence g(x)=Tn+1(x)+Rn+1(x)g(x) = T_{n+1}(x) + R_{n+1}(x), which is the formula for n+1n+1. By induction the proof is complete for all n≥0n \ge 0.
6Medium

Consider the map T(x)=12+xT(x) = \dfrac{1}{2+x} on [0,1][0,1]. (a) Show TT maps [0,1][0,1] into itself and is a contraction with constant c=1/4c = 1/4. (b) Cite the Banach fixed point theorem to find the unique fixed point of TT (solve the quadratic), and explain why iteration from any starting point converges to it.

∣T(x)−T(y)∣=∣x−y∣(2+x)(2+y)≤14 ∣x−y∣\lvert T(x) - T(y) \rvert = \frac{\lvert x - y \rvert}{(2+x)(2+y)} \le \frac14\,\lvert x - y \rvert
x=12+x  ⟺  x2+2x−1=0  ⟺  x=2−1≈0.4142x = \frac{1}{2+x} \iff x^2 + 2x - 1 = 0 \iff x = \sqrt{2} - 1 \approx 0.4142
Show solution
  1. (a) TT is decreasing on [0,1][0,1] with T(0)=1/2T(0) = 1/2 and T(1)=1/3T(1) = 1/3, so T([0,1])=[1/3,1/2]⊂[0,1]T([0,1]) = [1/3, 1/2] \subset [0,1]. For x,y∈[0,1]x, y \in [0,1], ∣T(x)−T(y)∣=∣2+y−(2+x)(2+x)(2+y)∣=∣x−y∣(2+x)(2+y)\lvert T(x) - T(y) \rvert = \left\lvert \dfrac{2+y-(2+x)}{(2+x)(2+y)} \right\rvert = \dfrac{\lvert x - y \rvert}{(2+x)(2+y)}. Since (2+x)(2+y)≥2⋅2=4(2+x)(2+y) \ge 2 \cdot 2 = 4, we get ∣T(x)−T(y)∣≤14∣x−y∣\lvert T(x) - T(y) \rvert \le \dfrac14\lvert x - y \rvert — a contraction with constant 1/41/4.
  2. (b) [0,1][0,1] is complete, so the Banach fixed point theorem (the Banach scene) gives TT a unique fixed point x∗∈[0,1]x^\ast \in [0,1]. The equation x=12+xx = \dfrac{1}{2+x} is equivalent to x2+2x−1=0x^2 + 2x - 1 = 0, with roots x=−1±2x = -1 \pm \sqrt{2}. The only one in [0,1][0,1] is x∗=2−1≈0.4142x^\ast = \sqrt{2} - 1 \approx 0.4142. By the same theorem, the iteration xn+1=T(xn)x_{n+1} = T(x_n) from any x0∈[0,1]x_0 \in [0,1] converges to x∗x^\ast — the error shrinks by at least a factor of 1/41/4 each step.

Hard

7Hard

Let f(x)=e−1/x2f(x) = e^{-1/x^2} for x≠0x \ne 0 and f(0)=0f(0) = 0. Prove ff is infinitely differentiable on R\mathbb{R} with f(n)(0)=0f^{(n)}(0) = 0 for every n≥0n \ge 0. Deduce that the Maclaurin series of ff converges for every xx but equals f(x)f(x) only at x=0x = 0 — a Taylor series need not recover the function.

f(n)(x)=Pn(1/x) e−1/x2(x≠0),lim⁡∣u∣→∞P(u)e−u2=0f^{(n)}(x) = P_n(1/x)\,e^{-1/x^2} \quad (x \ne 0),\qquad \lim_{\lvert u \rvert \to \infty} P(u)e^{-u^2} = 0
T(x)=∑n=0∞f(n)(0)n!xn≡0butf(x)>0 (x≠0)T(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n \equiv 0 \quad\text{but}\quad f(x) > 0\ (x \ne 0)
Show solution
  1. Lemma: for any polynomial PP, lim⁡∣u∣→∞P(u)e−u2=0\lim_{\lvert u \rvert \to \infty} P(u)e^{-u^2} = 0. Indeed, for v=u2≥0v = u^2 \ge 0, ev≥vmm!e^{v} \ge \dfrac{v^m}{m!} (one term of the exponential's Taylor expansion), so with 2m>deg⁡P2m > \deg P we get ∣P(u)∣e−u2≤m! ∣P(u)∣u2m→0\lvert P(u) \rvert e^{-u^2} \le m!\,\dfrac{\lvert P(u) \rvert}{u^{2m}} \to 0.
  2. We claim f(n)(x)=Pn(1/x)e−1/x2f^{(n)}(x) = P_n(1/x)e^{-1/x^2} for x≠0x \ne 0, for some polynomial PnP_n, by induction. For n=0n = 0, P0≡1P_0 \equiv 1. With u=1/xu = 1/x, \[\frac{d}{dx}\Bigl[P(u)e^{-1/x^2}\Bigr] = P'(u)\!\left(-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)e^{-1/x^2} + P(u)e^{-1/x^2}\!\left(\frac{2}{x^3}\right) = \bigl[-u^2P'(u) + 2u^3P(u)\bigr]e^{-u^2},\] and the bracket is a polynomial in uu, completing the induction step. Hence ff is infinitely differentiable at x≠0x \ne 0.
  3. Now f(n)(0)=0f^{(n)}(0) = 0 by induction. The case n=0n = 0 is the definition. f′(0)=lim⁡h→0e−1/h2h=lim⁡∣u∣→∞ue−u2=0f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \dfrac{e^{-1/h^2}}{h} = \lim_{\lvert u \rvert \to \infty} u e^{-u^2} = 0 (lemma, with u=1/hu = 1/h). Assuming f(n)(0)=0f^{(n)}(0) = 0, \[f^{(n+1)}(0) = \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f^{(n)}(h) - f^{(n)}(0)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{P_n(1/h)e^{-1/h^2}}{h} = \lim_{\lvert u \rvert \to \infty} uP_n(u)e^{-u^2} = 0\] (lemma applied to uPn(u)uP_n(u)). Thus f(n)(0)=0f^{(n)}(0) = 0 for all nn, and ff is infinitely differentiable at 00 too.
  4. The Maclaurin series is T(x)=∑n=0∞f(n)(0)n!xn≡0T(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n \equiv 0 — it converges (to 00) at every xx. But for x≠0x \ne 0, f(x)=e−1/x2>0f(x) = e^{-1/x^2} > 0. So the Taylor series converges everywhere yet matches ff only at x=0x = 0: even a smooth function need not be recovered by its Taylor series.