The sign of f′ decides where the curve rises and falls: up on the green background (f′>0), down on the red one (f′<0). Drag x0 and watch the tangent's color track the sign — one step behind the Mean Value Theorem.
f′≥0⇒f increasing
f′(x0)=h→0limhf(x0+h)−f(x0)
Examples & Exercises
Let f be continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b), with f′≥0 at every point of (a,b). Prove completely, using the Mean Value Theorem, that f is increasing on [a,b].
f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x)≥0(x<y,c∈(x,y))
f(x)=x3−3x, x0=1: here f′(1)=0 (gray tangent), yet f is still increasing across the whole interval — f′≥0 allows equality.Show proof
Take any two points x<y in [a,b]. The restriction of f to [x,y] is continuous on [x,y] and differentiable on (x,y), so it satisfies the hypotheses of the Mean Value Theorem (the original hypotheses on [a,b] pass down to every subinterval).
The Mean Value Theorem gives a point c∈(x,y) with f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x). Since c∈(a,b), the hypothesis yields f′(c)≥0, and y−x>0, so the product f′(c)(y−x)≥0.
Hence f(y)−f(x)≥0, i.e. f(x)≤f(y). Since x<y were arbitrary, f is increasing on [a,b]. Note the non-strict inequality (≤) — this is what distinguishes this result from the strict version in the next problem.
Under the same hypotheses, if f′>0 at every point of (a,b), prove that f is strictly increasing on [a,b].
f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x)>0(x<y,c∈(x,y))
f(x)=ex, x0=0: f′(0)=1>0 (green tangent), and since the derivative never vanishes the whole background is green — the archetype of strict increase.Show proof
Take arbitrary x<y in [a,b] and, as in problem 1, apply the Mean Value Theorem to f restricted to [x,y]: there is c∈(x,y) with f(y)−f(x)=f′(c)(y−x).
This time the hypothesis is strict: c∈(a,b) gives f′(c)>0, and y−x>0, so the product f′(c)(y−x)>0. Hence f(y)−f(x)>0, i.e. f(x)<f(y) — f is strictly increasing.
The only difference from problem 1 is the strictness of the inequality: f′≥0 permits flat spots (like f(x)=x3−3x near x=1), while f′>0 forces every secant slope to be positive, so the graph never pauses for an instant.
Prove completely that if f is differentiable and increasing on an interval I, then f′≥0 at every point of I (a partial converse).
f′(x0)=h→0limhf(x0+h)−f(x0)≥0
f(x)=x3−3x, x0=−1.25: f′(−1.25)=1.6875>0 (green tangent) and the function is increasing around here — the derivative cannot be negative on an increasing stretch.Show proof
Fix x0∈I and look at the difference quotient hf(x0+h)−f(x0) as h→0. For h>0, the numerator f(x0+h)−f(x0)≥0 (since f is increasing) — and the denominator is positive, so the quotient is ≥0.
The same holds for h<0: monotonicity gives f(x0+h)≤f(x0), so the numerator is ≤0, while the denominator h<0, and a nonpositive divided by a negative is again ≥0. So the difference quotient is nonnegative for every nonzero h.
Limits preserve weak inequalities: if g(h)≥0 and limh→0g(h)=L exists, then L≥0 (if L<0, then g(h) would eventually stay near L/2<0, a contradiction). Since f is differentiable, the limit f′(x0) exists, so f′(x0)≥0. As x0 was arbitrary, f′≥0 throughout I.
This is not a full converse: f(x)=x3 is strictly increasing on R yet f′(0)=0, so an increasing function need not satisfy f′>0. All we get is f′≥0.