See the triangle made by the coefficients of expanded powers. Follow one whole row being computed.
A binomial coefficient counts ways to choose. Each entry in the triangle is the sum of the two above it. That addition rule is the heart of the induction step. A whole row adds up to a power of two.
For example, toss two coins and count the heads: zero, one, or two. The counts go one way, two ways, one way. That is the triangle's second row, exactly.
Let x,y be numbers (real or complex) and n≥0 an integer.
Prove the binomial theorem (x+y)n=∑k=0n(kn)xn−kyk by induction on n.
(x+y)n=k=0∑n(kn)xn−kyk
Row n=4: 1,4,6,4,1 — the coefficients in the expansion of (x+y)4.Show proof
First verify Pascal's identity (kn)+(k−1n)=(kn+1) (1≤k≤n), which the induction step will use. Substituting (kn)=k!(n−k)!n! gives k!(n−k)!n!+(k−1)!(n−k+1)!n!; factoring out (k−1)!(n−k)!n! yields (k−1)!(n−k)!n!(k1+n−k+11)=(k−1)!(n−k)!n!⋅k(n−k+1)n+1=k!(n+1−k)!(n+1)!=(kn+1).
Base case n=0: use the convention 00=1 here (the empty product) — (x+y)0=1 even when x+y=0, and the factors x0,y0 are 1 even when x=0 or y=0. The left side is (x+y)0=1, and the right side has only the term k=0, giving (00)x0y0=1⋅1⋅1=1 — it holds.
Assume the formula holds for n. Then (x+y)n+1=(x+y)(x+y)n, and substituting the induction hypothesis gives ∑k=0n(kn)xn+1−kyk+∑k=0n(kn)xn−kyk+1.
Reindexing the second sum with j=k+1 gives ∑j=1n+1(j−1n)xn+1−jyj (renaming k to j in the first sum as well).
For 1≤j≤n the coefficient of xn+1−jyj is (jn)+(j−1n), which equals (jn+1) by Pascal's identity.
The boundary terms are (0n)=1=(0n+1) at j=0 and (nn)=1=(n+1n+1) at j=n+1, so the whole sum is ∑j=0n+1(jn+1)xn+1−jyj — exactly the formula for n+1.
The base case and the inductive step give the binomial theorem for every n≥0. The crux is Pascal's identity — the recurrence of the binomial coefficients meshes exactly with the inductive step of multiplying by one more (x+y).
Prove that ∑k=0n(kn)=2n for every integer n≥0.
k=0∑n(kn)=2n
The sum of row n=4: 1+4+6+4+1=16=24.Show proof
Substitute x=1, y=1 into the binomial theorem. The left side becomes (1+1)n=2n.
The right side is ∑k=0n(kn)1n−k1k=∑k=0n(kn) (powers of 1 are 1). Hence ∑k=0n(kn)=2n — this is why each row of Pascal's triangle sums to a power of 2.
Prove that ∑k=0n(−1)k(kn)=0 for every integer n≥1.
k=0∑n(−1)k(kn)=0(n≥1)
Row n=4: 1−4+6−4+1=0 — alternating signs cancel the sum.Show proof
Substitute x=1, y=−1 into the binomial theorem. The left side is (1+(−1))n=0n, and 0n=0 since n≥1 (n=0 is excluded because 00 is conventionally 1).
The right side is ∑k=0n(kn)1n−k(−1)k=∑k=0n(−1)k(kn). Hence ∑k=0n(−1)k(kn)=0 — alternating signs cancel every row of Pascal's triangle to 0.